NAC Tech Sample Test Part A & PART B

NAC Tech Sample Test
Part A
Directions for question: The following capitalized pair of words is followed by four other pairs of words.
Choose the pair that has a relationships similar to that in the capitalized pair.
1. EVAPORATION : CLOUD
1. Mountain : Snow
2. Pressure : Atmosphere
3. Book : Pages
4. Tension : Breakdown
Directions : Four sentences are given below which when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices
to construct the paragraph.
2. A. Rewards are said to be exceptionally good.
B. But telemarketing is increasingly gaining popularity as a successful strategy.
C. The use of telephone as a medium of selling, also called telesales, is a fairly old practice.
D. Because religious telemarketing efforts have increased the bottom line of many organisations.
1. BACD
2. ABCD
3. CBAD
4. CABD
Directions for question 3-4: In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence
is underlined. Beneath each sentence you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the best
choice that follows the requirements of standard written English.
3. Nowhere in India is the influence of ancient architecture more apparent than their public buildings.
1. more apparent than their
2. so apparent as their
3. more apparent than its
4. as apparent as it is in its.
4. Although one link in the chain was demonstrated to be weak, but not sufficiently so to require the recall
of the automobile.
1. demonstrated to be weak, but not sufficiently so to require.
2. demonstrated as weak, but it was not sufficiently so that it required.
3. demonstrably weak, but not sufficiently so to require.
4. demonstrably weak, it was not so weak as to require.
Directions for questions 5-6 : Find the odd word out.
5. 1. impenetrable
2. invincible
3. indomitable
4. immaculate
6. 1. idyllic
2. riveting
3. rustic
4. rural
Directions for questions 7-8: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
It’s sad, though unfortunately true but our small planet which is located in an insignificant outer spiral of an
absolutely average galaxy is, like millions of other heavenly bodies, regularly bombarded by cosmic debris
involving comets and meteors which have in the past led to wholesale cataclysmic obliteration of life forms.
In the greatest known extinction episode at the end of what is known as the Permian period, an era of severe
climate and geologic changes 245 million years ago, 96 per cent of all marine species and more than 50 per cent
of all other species disappeared. Another period of rapid extinction, 65 million years ago, is famous for the
disappearance of the dinosaurs when, along with them, one third of the rest of the plant and mammalian
population became extinct too.
The chances of another hit are over-ripe right now and feel-good disaster films like Deep Impact or
Armageddon notwithstanding, the severity of loss is going to be far more devastating than special effects on
computer graphics. Because this time around a casual wandering stone half the size of a Mumbai suburb
impacting with our planet will make thousands of years of art, culture, science, society, civilization, governance
and religion meaningless. This time species alone are not going to be obliterated, but specimens with brains and
consciousness are going to be wiped out in less time than it takes to think of a blink.
Ironically, if this invader is small enough to wreak devastation on a scale than can still be managed with only the
loss of a few hundred millions, we have to then face the daunting task of restructuring everything from almost
start. In the process we may also have to face the loss of long cherished icons and artifacts like maybe the Mona
Lisa, the ionosphere or the polar ice caps.
Some futures are devolvable and can be prognosticated with optimistic extras. Other futures involve ninth and
tenth generation computation to make our livelihood “smart” to the point of excellent boredom. But what does
one do with a future that’s coming on inevitably any millennia now and is about to sub-atomize our short and
convoluted existence?
7. “………..the loss of long cherished icons and artifacts like maybe the Mona Lisa, the ionosphere or the
polar ice caps”. The sentence implies that icons and artifacts :
1. are too precious to be lost.
2. are invaluable.
3. are an integral part of “our world”.
4. will be too hard to lose.
8. The “destruction” author is referring to is of:
1. Permian period.
2. entire civilization.
3. heavenly bodies.
4. our small planet.
9. Five students, Alisha, Binoy, Carey, Dolphy and Elizabeth were comparing the scores each received
on a Math and an English test. The following was discovered that Alisha's English score was 80.
Alisha's Math score equals Elizabeth's English score. Elizabeth's Math score equals Alisha's English
score. Alisha's English score is 15 less than Elizabeth's English score. Dolphy's Math score is 20 more
than his English score and is 20 more than Carey's Math score. Dolphy's Math score is 40 more than
Binoy's English score. Carey's English score is 10 less than Binoy's English score. If Binoy's English
score is 60, what is Dolphy's English score?
1. 80
2. 70
3. 60
4. 50
10. When I was married 10 years ago, my wife was the sixth member in the family. Today, my father died,
and a baby was born to me. The average age in my family today is what it was when I was married.
How old was my father when he died?
1. 50 years
2. 60 years
3. 70 years
4. Indeterminate
11. In a class, 30 students pass in English and 20 students in Math, while some students among these pass
in both. How many more students do only English as compared to those doing only Maths?
1. 10
2. 15
3. 20
4. Indeterminate
12. The cost of hiring a bus is shared equally by all passengers. The bus has seats for 40 passengers and
the total bill comes to Rs.70.37. How many seats went unoccupied?
1. 13
2. 11
3. 9
4. 7
13. In tennis, service alternates for each game between the two players and the first player to win 6 games
wins. A player winning 6-2 indicates that 8 games were played, of which the winning player won 6 and the
losing player won 2.
Rafa beat Roger in a set of tennis, winning six games to Roger’s three. Five games were won by the player
who did not serve. Who served first?
1. Rafa
2. Roger
3. Inconsistent data
4. Indeterminate
14. If ‘Test is tuff’ stands for ‘@ # $’, ‘Test was easy’ stands for ‘$ % ^’, ‘easy becomes tuff’ stands for ‘^ @
&’ then what will be the code for ‘is’ and ‘was’?
1. &, %
2. ^, $
3. #, %
4. #, ^
15. In the island of Hanoi is trapped a princess. To rescue her, the prince has to transfer a set of rings
numbered 1 to 7 from tower A to tower C. The rings are stacked one over the other in an order, with 1
at the top and 6 at the bottom, and have to be stacked in the same fashion on tower C. The prince can
move only one ring at a time, and can store the rings in a stack, temporarily, in another tower B.
Minimum how many moves of rings, between the towers, will it take the prince to arrange the rings in
tower C ?
1. 13
2. 127
3. 14
4. 129

                                    NAC Tech Sample Test
                                  Part B (Answer any one part)
Information Technology
1. In a graph G there are 2n vertices which correspond to ‘n’ bit strings. Two nodes are connected iff the
first 3 bits are similar. What are the number of connected components?
1. 1
2. 3
3. 8
4. 2n-3
2. Let x, y and z denote the first vertex visited in post-order, in-order and pre-order traversals respectively
of a complete binary tree. Which of the following is always true?
1. x = y
2. x = z
3. y = z
4. None of these
3. Consider the following functions: f(n)=
n 3n ; g(n) = n n log 3 3 ; h(n) = n!
Which of the following is true?
1. h(n) is O (f(n))
2. h(n) is O (g(n))
3. f(n) is O (g(n))
4. g(n) is not O (f(n))
4. Consider the following program
n = b1b2b3….bm
int n, rev;
rev = 0;
while (n > 0) {
rev = rev * 10 + n %10;
n = n/10;
}
Which of the following is true at the end of the ith iteration?
1. n = b1b2…bm–i and rev = bmbm–1….bm–i+1
2. n= bm–i+1….bm–1bm and rev = bm–i…b2b1
3. n= b1b2…bm and rev = bm…b2b1
4. none of these
5. A program ‘c’ with 200 integers in the range 0 – 50 represents the scores of 200 students. It then prints
the frequency of each score above 25. What would be the best way for ‘c’ to store the frequency?
1. an array of 25 numbers
2. an array of 50 numbers
3. an array of 200 numbers
4. a dynamically allocated array of 250 numbers
Electrical Engineering
1. A 4 bit ripple counter uses RS flip flops. Determine the maximum propogation delay of each flip flop,
if the clock frequency is 5 MHz
1. 100 ns
2. 60 ns
3. 30 ns
4. 50 ns
2. Determine the input displacement factor if the power factor = 0.6 and distortion factor =
3
π
1. 0.6
2. 0.634
3. 0.628
4. 0.783
3. Assertion (A): If a diode is connected close to the SCR in a series resonant inverter, SCR does not turn
off at all.
Reason (R): Diode reduces the reverse voltage of the thyristor.
1. A and R are true, A is correct explanation
2. A is true, R is false
3. A is false
4. A and R are true, R is not correct explanation
4. Determine which of the following is false with respect to PWM Inverter?
1. It has very good PF on the AC side
2. Very wide speed range of operation
3. Voltage is determined by switching frequency
4. Closed loop operation is possible
5. Which tool is best used to monitor the speed of moving vehicles in a city?
1. Pulsed radar
2. Monopulse radar
3. Doppler radar
4. Auto tracking radar
Electronics Engineering
1. Which of the following statement is true?
1. BJT is current controlled device with a high input impedance and high gain Bandwidth.
2. FET is a voltage controlled device with high input impedance and low gain Bandwidth.
3. FET cannot be used for Amplification.
4. All of the above.
2. A Base band video signal limited to 9MHz is transmitted using USB. The vestigial Bandwidth is
2MHz. The Bandwidth of the USB modulated signal is
1. 9 MHz
2. 11 MHz
3. 13 MHz
4. 20 MHz
3. Figure of merit of a Single tone AM receiver using Envelope detector if u = 0.5 is
1. 0.08
2. 0.11
3. 0.25
4. 1
4. In a 16-bit microprocessor, words are stored in two consecutive memory locations. Reading the entire
word in a single operation is possible if
1. the first word is even
2. the last memory location is odd
3. the first memory location is odd
4. the first memory address is even
5. How many ‘zeroes’ are present in the binary representation of 51 × 5?
1. 0
2. 1
3. 3
4. 5
Mechanical Engineering
1. Brinell hardness number is equal to
1.
2 2
P
D− (D − d )
2.
( ) 2 2
2P
πD D− (D − d )
3.
2 2
2P
D− (D − d )
4.
( )
2P
D D − (D − d)
2. Technically, steel with carbon above 2% is known as
1. Ferrite
2. Pearlite
3. Cementite
4. Cast Iron
3. Bending moment M and torque T is applied on a shaft. The equivalent torque will be
1. M + T
2. 1 2 2
M T
2
+
3. ( ) 1 2 2
M M T
2
+ +
4. 2 2 M + T
4. A Mohr’s circle reduces to a point when the body is subjected to
1. pure shear
2. uniaxial stress only
3. equal and opposite axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of
shear
4. equal axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear
5. Choose the odd process out
1. TIG welding
2. Thermit welding
3. Resistance welding
4. Submerged arc welding
Civil Engineering
1. The equilibrium super elevation required to contract the centrifugal force fully is given by:
1.
2 V
27.5R
2.
2 0.75v
127R
3.
2 V
75R
4.
2 V
127R
2. The mechanical extra widening required for pavement of width 10.5 m, on a horizontal curve of radius
‘R’ metre is given by:
1.
2 l
2R
2.
2 2l
3R
3.
2 l
R
4.
2 3l
2R
3. In calculating the strength of a riveted joint in tearing, shearing and crushing, the
1. Actual diameter of the rivet is used
2. Actual diameter of hole drilled for rivet is used
3. Mean diameter of hole drilled for rivet is used
4. Smaller of the diameter and hole diameter is used
4. Archimedes’ principle of buoyancy states that when a body is totally or partially immersed in a fluid, it
is buoyed up by a force which is equal to:
1. Weight of the body
2. Weight of the fluid displaced by the body
3. Weight of the body and the fluid displaced by the body
4. Difference of weights of the fluid displaced and that of the body
5. If a water tank partially filled with water is being carried on a truck, moving with a constant horizontal
acceleration, the level of the liquid will:
1. Rise on the front side of the tank
2. Fall on the back side of the tank
3. Remain the same at both side of the tank
4. Rise on the back side and fall on the front side
Chemical Engineering
1. The characteristic equation of a system is S4 + 3S2 –2S + 1 = 0. The system is
1. Stable
2. Unstable
3. Critically stable
4. Cannot say
2. Select the wrong statement.
Compared to Pt catalyst, V2O5 catalyst used in contact process for manufacture of H2SO4 because it is
1. Is immune to poisons
2. Requires low O2/SO2 to give economic conversion
3. Requires dilute SO2 input (7-10%)
4. Requires low initial investments and 5% replacement per year.
3. Fluid energy mill is used for
1. Ultrafine grinding
2. Cutting
3. Grinding
4. Crushing
4. The assumptions made in the derivation of Bernoulli’s equation are that the flow is
1. Incompressible, rotational and non-viscous
2. Incompressible, steady, non-viscous and irrotational
3. Incompressible, steady and non-viscous
4. Incompressible, non-viscous and irrotational
5. In a textile mill, an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 6% by W/W to produce an
output containing 30% by W/W. Calculate evaporation of water per 100kg of feed to the evaporator?
1. 80Kg
2. 100Kg
3. 60Kg
4. 90Kg
Textile Engineering
1) Find the odd man out
1. Chain Stitch
2. Tricot Stitch
3. Railway Stitch
4. Cross Stitch
2) 10 kilometers of a cotton yarn with 7 RKM is wound up in a spool. 50 centimeters of the same yarn is
then tied to the spool on one end and attached to a hook on the other end.
1. The 50 cm yarn would stretch by 2%
2. The 50 cm yarn would break under the weight of the spool
3. The 50 cm yarn would stretch by 7%
4. The 50 cm yarn would retain its original shape
3) Cellulose pulp is treated with Carbon-di-sulphide and dissolved in caustic soda again. The resultant
yarn that is manufactured can be used for
1. PV fabrics
2. PC fabrics
3. PE fabrics
4. PVC fabrics
4) A fabric of dimension 50 cm by 30 cm, has a weight of 22500 mg. The density of the fabric is
1. 50 gsm
2. 100 gsm
3. 150 gsm
4. 200 gsm
5) 500 fabric banners using six-colour geometric graphics need to be produced. Which printing procedure
would be most quick and accurate?
1. block
2. digital
3. roller
4. screen
Bio-Technology Engineering
1. In Guinea pigs, black hair (B) is dominant over white (b), rough coat texture (R) is dominant over
smooth (r), and short hair (S) is dominant over long hair (s). A cross between a homozygous black,
rough, short-haired Guinea pig and a white, smooth, long-haired one and the F1 offsprings were crossed
again. What would be the number of offsprings with the genotype BBR-Ss, if 160 offsprings were
born? (Assume that these genes are on separate chromosomes)
1. 15
2. 24
3. 21
4. 27
2. The four elements making 99% of living system are
1. C, H, O, S
2. C, H, O, P
3. C, H, O, N
4. C, N, O, P
3. Facultative pyschrophiles have:
1. Optimal growth temperature between 200 and 300 but can grow at 00C
2. Optimal growth temperature between 00 and 100 but can grow at 250C
3. Optimal growth temperature below 50 but can grow at 250C
4. None of the above
4. A sample was inoculated by 2 cell of a bacterium with a generation time of 15 minutes. What would be
the number of bacterium after 4 hrs?
1. 128
2. 256
3. 512
4. 1024
5. The mixture of proteins (K, J, L, M, P) is separated from SDS – PAGE. The increasing order of their
molecular size is L, M, K, P, J. The electrophoretic mobility in SDS PAGE gel would be in the order
(increasing):
1. KPJML
2. LMKPJ
3. JPKML
4. Same for all
Telecommunications Engineering
1. fm / fc is the
1. upper band frequency
2. lower band frequency
3. harmonity ratio
4. mid band frequency
2. Microwaves are electromagnetic waves with frequencies between
1. 300 MHz to 300 GHz
2. 50 Mhz to 600 MHz
3. 800 to 900 MHz
4. 1.8 to 1.95 GHz
3. Consider two channels.
Channel 1: Bandwidth = 4M HZ;
S
N
= 1024 and Channel 2: Bandwidth = 2MHZ;
S
N
=2048
1. Communication in channel 1 is faster than channel 2
2. Communication in channel 2 is faster than channel 1
3. Communication in equally fast in both channels
4. Insufficient data
4. A 5 bit ripple counter requires 100 n sec for change of state. The maximum propagation delay of each
flip flop is
1. 20 ns
2. 10 ns
3. 50 ns
4. 5 ns
5. In a PCM system, number of bits are increased from n to n + 1. The quantization noise power
1. increases by 3dB
2. decreases by 3dB
3. decreases by 6dB
4. increases by 6dB